CAT 2019 RC and Verbal Ability - slot 01

   2019 VA RC - slot 01

Directions for questions 1 to 5: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

PASSAGE - 1

As defined by the geographer Yi-Fu Tuan, topophilia is the affective bond between people and place. His 1974 book set forth a wide-ranging exploration of how the emotive ties with the material environment vary greatly from person to person and in intensity, subtlety, and mode of expression. Factors influencing one’s depth of response to the environment include cultural background, gender, race, and historical circumstance, and Tuan also argued that there is a biological and sensory element. Topophilia might not be the strongest of human emotions— indeed, many people feel utterly indifferent toward the environments that shape their lives— but when activated it has the power to elevate a place to become the carrier of emotionally charged events or to be perceived as a symbol.

Aesthetic appreciation is one way in which people respond to the environment. A brilliantly colored rainbow after gloomy afternoon showers, a busy city street alive with human interaction—one might experience the beauty of such landscapes that had seemed quite ordinary only moments before or that are being newly discovered. This is quite the opposite of a second topophilic bond, namely that of the acquired taste for certain landscapes and places that one knows well. When a place is home, or when a space has become the locus of memories or the means of gaining a livelihood, it frequently evokes a deeper set of attachments than those predicated purely on the visual. A third response to the environment also depends on the human senses but may be tactile and olfactory, namely a delight in the feel and smell of air, water, and the earth.

Topophilia—and its very close conceptual twin, sense of place—is an experience that, however elusive, has inspired recent architects and planners. Most notably, new urbanism seeks to counter the perceived placelessness of modern suburbs and the decline of central cities through neo-traditional design motifs. Although motivated by good intentions, such attempts to create places rich in meaning are perhaps bound to disappoint. As Tuan noted, purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly revealed, but their intensity rarely is longlasting. Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify, and its most articulate interpreters have been self-reflective philosophers such as Henry David Thoreau, evoking a marvelously intricate sense of place at Walden Pond, and Tuan, describing his deep affinity for the desert.

Topophilia connotes a positive relationship, but it often is useful to explore the darker affiliations between people and place. Patriotism, literally meaning the love of one’s terra patria or homeland, has long been cultivated by governing elites for a range of nationalist projects, including war preparation and ethnic cleansing. Residents of upscale residential developments have disclosed how important it is to maintain their community’s distinct identity, often by casting themselves in a superior social position and by reinforcing class and racial differences. And just as a beloved landscape is suddenly revealed, so too may landscapes of fear cast a dark shadow over a place that makes one feel a sense of dread or anxiety—or topophobia.

Question 01: Which one of the following comes closest in meaning to the author’s understanding of topophilia?

  1. Nomadic societies are known to have the least affinity for the lands through which they traverse because they tend to be topophobic.
  2. The French are not overly patriotic, but they will refuse to use English as far as possible, even when they know it well.
  3. The tendency of many cultures to represent their land as “motherland” or “fatherland” may be seen as an expression of their topophilia.
  4. Scientists have found that most creatures, including humans, are either born with or cultivate a strong sense of topography.

Choice 1 talks about topophobia but the question is about topophilia, hence it can be eliminated. Choice 2 talks about using English language but topophilia is about place and not language and hence eliminated. Choice 4 talks about ‘most creatures’ and ‘born with a strong sense of topography’ which is not mentioned in the passage, hence eliminated. Choice 3 is mentioned in the last paragraph while describing patriotism as a form of topophilia and this is the right choice and comes closest in meaning to the author's understanding of the term topophilia. Choice 3 is the correct answer.

Question 02: In the last paragraph, the author uses the example of “Residents of upscale residential developments” to illustrate the:

  1. social exclusivism practised by such residents in order to enforce a sense of racial or class superiority
  2. manner in which environments are designed to minimise the social exclusion of their clientele
  3. sensitive response to race and class problems in upscale residential developments.
  4. introduction of nationalist projects by such elites to produce a sense of dread or topophobia.

Refer to the last paragraph. Choice 1 is clearly mentioned and therefore it is the right choice. Choice 2 to and 3 are contradictory and choice 4 which talks about nationalistic projects is not mentioned at all in the last paragraph hence all three can be eliminated.

Choice 1 is the correct answer.

Question 03: Which of the following statements, if true, could be seen as not contradicting the arguments in the passage?

  1. The most important, even fundamental, response to our environment is our tactile and olfactory response
  2. Patriotism, usually seen as a positive feeling, is presented by the author as a darker form of topophilia
  3. New Urbanism succeeded in those designs where architects collaborated with their clients.
  4. Generally speaking, in a given culture, the ties of the people to their environment vary little in significance or intensity.

Question 3 asks about the statement which does not contradict the arguments in the passage. It means it is asking about the statement which supports the arguments in the passage. Choice one is wrong because it says that tactile and olfactory response is the most important and fundamental response. The passage does not say so. Choice 3 is also wrong because it says that new urbanism succeeded while the passage says that it failed. Also choice 3 mentions that Architects collaborated with their clients which is not mentioned in the passage. Choice 4 is also wrong because it says that ties of the people to their environment very little in significance but para 1 says that emotive ties with the material environment varies greatly. 

Choice 2 is correct as it is clearly mentioned in the last paragraph of the passage.

Question 04: The word “topophobia” in the passage is used:

  1. to signify the fear of studying the complex discipline of topography.
  2. to represent a feeling of dread towards particular spaces and places.
  3. as a metaphor expressing the failure of the homeland to accommodate non-citizens.
  4. to signify feelings of fear or anxiety towards topophilic people.

Choice 2 is correct. Refer to last paragraph of the passage. The word topophobia is clearly defined here as given in choice 2.  Choice 1, 3 and 4 are not mentioned at all anywhere in the passage. Hence, they can be safely eliminated.

Question 05: Which one of the following best captures the meaning of the statement, “Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify . . .”?

  1. Architects have to objectively quantify spaces and hence cannot be topophilic.
  2. The deep anomie of modern urbanisation led to new urbanism’s intricate sense of place.
  3. Philosopher-architects are uniquely suited to develop topophilic design.
  4. People’s responses to their environment are usually subjective and so cannot be rendered in design.

Choice 4 is the correct answer. This is an inferential question. To answer this question you have to read paragraph 1 where it has been clearly mentioned that the emotive ties with the material environment vary greatly from person to person and in intensity, subtlety, and mode of expression. Factors influencing one’s depth of response to the environment include cultural background, gender race and historical circumstances. This line of thought is clearly expressed in choice 4 and so choice 4 is the right answer. Choice I, 2 and 3 are not mentioned in the passage in context of topophilia being difficult to design and impossible to quantify.

Directions for questions 6 to 10: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE-2
Contemporary internet shopping conjures a perfect storm of choice anxiety. Research has consistently held that people who are presented with a few options make better, easier decisions than those presented with many. Helping consumers figure out what to buy amid an endless sea of choice online has become a cottage industry unto itself. Many brands and retailers now wield marketing buzzwords such as curation, differentiation, and discovery as they attempt to sell an assortment of stuff targeted to their ideal customer. Companies find such shoppers through the data gold mine of digital advertising, which can catalog people by gender, income level, personal interests, and more. Since Americans have lost the ability to sort through the sheer volume of the consumer choices available to them, a ghost now has to be in the retail machine, whether it’s an algorithm, an influencer, or some snazzy ad tech to help a product follow you around the internet. Indeed, choice fatigue is one reason so many people gravitate toward lifestyle influencers on Instagram—the relentlessly chic young moms and perpetually vacationing 20-somethings—who present an aspirational worldview, and then recommend the products and services that help achieve it. 
For a relatively new class of consumer-products start-ups, there’s another method entirely. Instead of making sense of a sea of existing stuff, these companies claim to disrupt stuff as Americans know it. Casper (mattresses), Glossier (makeup), Away (suitcases), and many others have sprouted up to offer consumers freedom from choice: The companies have a few aesthetically pleasing and supposedly highly functional options, usually at mid-range prices. They’re selling nice things, but maybe more importantly, they’re selling a confidence in those things, and an ability to opt out of the stuff rat race.
One-thousand-dollar mattresses and $300 suitcases might solve choice anxiety for a certain tier of consumer, but the companies that sell them, along with those that attempt to massage the larger stuff economy into something navigable, are still just working within a consumer market that’s broken in systemic ways. The presence of so much stuff in America might be more valuable if it were more evenly distributed, but stuff’s creators tend to focus their energy on those who already have plenty. As options have expanded for people with disposable income, the opportunity to buy even basic things such as fresh food or quality diapers has contracted for much of America’s lower classes.
For start-ups that promise accessible simplicity, their very structure still might eventually push them toward overwhelming variety. Most of these companies are based on hundreds of millions of dollars of venture capital, the investors of which tend to expect a steep growth rate that can’t be achieved by selling one great mattress or one great sneaker. Casper has expanded into bedroom furniture and bed linens. Glossier, after years of marketing itself as no-makeup makeup that requires little skill to apply, recently launched a full line of glittering color cosmetics. There may be no way to opt out of stuff by buying into the right thing.
Question 06: Which of the following hypothetical statements would add the least depth to the author’s prediction of the fate of start-ups offering few product options?
  1. An exponential surge in their sales enables start-ups to meet their desired profit goals without expanding their product catalogue.
  2. Start-ups with few product options are no exception to the American consumer market that is deeply divided along class lines.
  3. With the motive of promoting certain rival companies, the government decides to double the tax-rates for these start-ups.
  4. With Casper and Glossier venturing into new product ranges, their regular customers start losing trust in the companies and their products.

Choice 1 is the correct answer. Please note that question 1 is asking about the statement that would add the “least depth” to the authors prediction of the fate of start-ups offering few product options. The start-ups are discussed in the last paragraph of the passage where it is said that the growth rate can't be achieved by selling one great mattress or one great sneaker.

Now come to choice 1. It says exactly the opposite that the desired profit goals can be achieved without expanding their product catalogue. This seems to be contradictory and therefore could be the right choice. Choice 2 is not contradicting anything about start-ups with few product options and it can be eliminated. Choice 3 is simply not related to start-ups and its product options. It is about taxation and hence can be eliminated. Choice 4 can also be eliminated because it does not stop companies like Casper and Glacier into venturing into new product ranges.

Question 07: A new food brand plans to launch a series of products in the American market. Which of the following product plans is most likely to be supported by the author of the passage?

  1. A range of 10 products priced between $5 and $10.
  2. A range of 25 products priced between $10 and $25.
  3. A range of 10 products priced between $10 and $25.
  4. A range of 25 products priced between $5 and $10.

Choice 1 is the correct answer. If you read paragraph 1 of this passage it becomes clear that the writer is in favour of fewer choices for the customer. Moreover in paragraph 3 the writer is lamenting the fact that most start-ups are catering only to those with disposal incomes, and stuff’s creators tend to focus their energy on those who already have plenty. As options have expanded for people with disposable income the opportunity to buy even basic things such as Fresh Food or quality diapers has contracted for much of America's lower classes. If you factorise the spirit of these two paragraphs you can clearly make out that choice 1 is the correct answer because it has only 10 products which are priced between only $5 and $10. Rest of the choices 2, 3, and 4 either mention large number of products or higher prices. Hence they can be eliminated safely.

Question 08: Which one of the following best sums up the overall purpose of the examples of Casper and Glossier in the passage?

  1. They are increasing the purchasing power of poor Americans
  2. They are facilitating a uniform distribution of commodities in the market.
  3. They are exceptions to a dominant trend in consumer markets
  4. They might transform into what they were exceptions to.

Choice 4 is the correct answer. Refer paragraph 2. It says that Casper and Glossier were exceptions to the Internet shopping space as they offered consumers freedom from choice by offering them only a few items but eventually they were forced to offer a wider product range because of the pressures from investors who wanted a steep growth rate that could not be met with only a few products. As a result they were forced to change to offer a greater variety of products and ultimately become like most other start-ups which are discussed in the first paragraph. If you factorise the spirit of paragraph 1 and 2 it will become clear that choice 4 is the correct answer. Choice 1 is wrong because it mentions poor Americans and the passage talk about poor Americans only in the context of them not being catered to by internet startup companies. Choice 2 is also wrong because it is contradicting the assertion made in the third paragraph. Choice 3 is also wrong because they do not discuss the purpose of examples of Casper and Glacier.

Question 09: All of the following, IF TRUE, would weaken the author’s claims EXCEPT:

  1. the annual sale of companies that hired lifestyle influencers on Instagram for marketing their products were 40% less than those that did not.
  2. the empowerment felt by purchasers in buying a commodity were directly proportional to the number of options they could choose from
  3. product options increased market competition, bringing down the prices of commodities, which, in turn, increased purchasing power of the poor
  4. the annual sales growth of companies with fewer product options were higher than that of companies which curated their products for target consumers.

In this question we are looking for a statement that would not weaken the author's claims made in the passage. Option 1 can be eliminated because it directly contradicts the sentiment expressed in the paragraph 1 where it is said that choice anxiety is one reason why so many people gravitate towards Lifestyle influencers on Instagram. It clearly weakens the author's claim.

Choice 2 also weekens the author’s claim as it says that the purchasers felt empowerment in buying commodity from a large number of options. However the paragraph 1 says that contemporary internet shopping can cause a perfect storm of choice anxiety. People who are presented with the few options make better, easier decision than those were presented with many options.

Choice 3 can also be eliminated because its sentiment supports a large number of product options being favourable to the poor by increasing their purchasing power and also bringing down the prices of commodities. This is in direct contradiction to the thoughts expressed by the author in paragraph 3.

Choice 4 is the right answer because it says that annual sales growth of companies with fewer product options is far higher than that of companies which had large product options and therefore had to curate their products for target consumers. This directly supports the sentiments expressed in the paragraph 1 of the passage.

Question 10: Based on the passage, all of the following can be inferred about consumer behaviour EXCEPT that:

  1. having too many product options can be overwhelming for consumers.
  2. consumers are susceptible to marketing images that they see on social media
  3. consumers tend to prefer products by start-ups over those by established companies.
  4. too many options have made it difficult for consumers to trust products.

Choice 3 is the correct answer. In this question we have to find the statement which “cannot be inferred” about the consumer behaviour. Choice 1 can be directly inferred from paragraph 1. Choice 2 can also be directly inferred from paragraph 1 of the passage. Choice 3 cannot be inferred from the passage because the passage is talking mainly about internet start-ups and does not discuss the established companies and also the point that consumers prefer products from start-ups than from the established companies has not been mentioned in the passage. Option 4 can be inferred from the passage as derived from the thoughts expressed in paragraph 2.

Directions for questions 11 to 15: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

PASSAGE-3

In the past, credit for telling the tale of Aladdin has often gone to Antoine Galland, the first European translator of Arabian Nights which started as a series of translations of an incomplete manuscript of a medieval Arabic story collection. But, though those tales were of medieval origin, Aladdin may be a more recent invention. Scholars have not found a manuscript of the story that predates the version published in 1712 by Galland, who wrote in his diary that he first heard the tale from a Syrian storyteller from Aleppo named Hanna Diyab.

Despite the fantastical elements of the story, scholars now think the main character may actually be based on a real person’s real experiences. Though Galland never credited Diyab in his published translations of the Arabian Nights stories, Diyab wrote something of his own: a travelogue penned in the mid-18th century. In it, he recalls telling Galland the story of Aladdin and describes his own hard-knocks upbringing and the way he marveled at the extravagance of Versailles. The descriptions he uses were very similar to the descriptions of the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version of the Aladdin story. Therefore, author Paulo Lemos Horta believes that “Aladdin might be the young Arab Maronite from Aleppo, marveling at the jewels and riches of Versailles.” 

For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the story was invented in that 18th century period as a byproduct of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was prevalent then. The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script. According to Horta, “Diyab was ideally placed to embody the overlapping world of East and West, blending the storytelling traditions of his homeland with his youthful observations of the wonder of 18th-century France.” 

To the scholars who study the tale, its narrative drama isn’t the only reason storytellers keep finding reason to return to Aladdin. It reflects not only “a history of the French and the Middle East, but also a story about Middle Easterners coming to Paris and that speaks to our world today,” as Horta puts it. “The day Diyab told the story of Aladdin to Galland, there were riots due to food shortages during the winter and spring of 1708 to 1709, and Diyab was sensitive to those people in a way that Galland is not. When you read this diary, you see this solidarity among the Arabs who were in Paris at the time. There is little in the writings of Galland that would suggest that he was capable of developing a character like Aladdin with sympathy, but Diyab’s memoir reveals a narrator adept at capturing the distinctive psychology of a young protagonist, as well as recognizing the kinds of injustices and opportunities that can transform the path of any youthful adventurer.”

Question 11: Which of the following does not contribute to the passage’s claim about the authorship of Aladdin?

  1. The story-line of many French fairy tales of the 18th century
  2. The depiction of the affluence of Versailles in Diyab’s travelogue
  3. The narrative sensibility of Diyab’s travelogue.
  4. Galland’s acknowledgment of Diyab in his diary.

Choice 1 is the correct answer. Choices 2, 3, and 4 contribute to the passage’s claim about the authorship of Aladdin. For choice 2 refer para 2. For choice 3 refer para 4. For choice 4 refer para 1. These choices are clearly mentioned in these paragraphs. Choice 1 is mentioned in para 3 but in the opposite context, denying the authorship of Alladins story to Diyab – “For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the story was invented in that 18th century period as a by-product of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was prevalent then. The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script.”  Hence choice 1 is the right answer.

Question 12: The author of the passage is most likely to agree with which of the following explanations for the origins of the story of Aladdin?

  1. Galland derived the story of Aladdin from Diyab’s travelogue in which he recounts his fascination with the wealth of Versailles.
  2. Galland received the story of Aladdin from Diyab who, in turn, found it in an incomplete medieval manuscript.
  3. Basing it on his own life experiences, Diyab transmitted the story of Aladdin to Galland who included it in Arabian Nights.
  4. The story of Aladdin has its origins in an undiscovered, incomplete manuscript of a medieval Arabic collection of stories.

Choice 3 is the correct answer. Refer paragraph 1. It states that Galland received the story of Aladdin from Diyab while paragraph 3 mentions that modern scholars now think that Diyab based the story of Aladdin on his own life experiences. Choice 3 states this fact and therefore it is the correct answer. Choice 1 is incorrect because the author clearly states that Galland heard the story from Diyab and that Diyab never mentioned to Galland that it was his own story. Choice 2 is incorrect because the story of Aladdin was not found in an incomplete medieval manuscript but was recounted by Diyab to Galland. Choice 4 is not stated in the passage as pertinent to the tale of Aladdin. It is relevant to Arabian Nights. Hence, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 13: Which of the following is the primary reason for why storytellers are still fascinated by the story of Aladdin?

  1. The traveller’s experience that inspired the tale of Aladdin resonates even today.
  2. The archetype of the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin makes it popular even today
  3. The tale of Aladdin documents the history of Europe and Middle East.
  4. The story of Aladdin is evidence of the eighteenth century French Orientalist attitude.

Refer para 4 – To the scholars who study the tale, its narrative drama isn’t the only reason storytellers keep finding reason to return to Aladdin. It reflects not only “a history of the French and the Middle East, but also a story about Middle Easterners coming to Paris and that speaks to our world today,” as Horta puts it. “The day Diyab told the story of Aladdin to Galland, there were riots due to food shortages during the winter and spring of 1708 to 1709, and Diyab was sensitive to those people in a way that Galland is not. When you read this diary, you see this solidarity among the Arabs who were in Paris at the time. There is little in the writings of Galland that would suggest that he was capable of developing a character like Aladdin with sympathy, but Diyab’s memoir reveals a narrator adept at capturing the distinctive psychology of a young protagonist, as well as recognizing the kinds of injustices and opportunities that can transform the path of any youthful adventurer.”

Choice 1 is correct because para 4 clearly states that the primary reason for why storytellers are still fascinated by the story of Aladdin is the experience of a middle easterner traveller which is brought out in the tale of Aladdin. Choice 2 is incorrect because para 4 doesn’t suggest that rags-to-riches story of Aladdin is the primary reason for why storytellers are still fascinated by the story of Aladdin. Choice 3 is incorrect because there is no mention of history of EUROPE (only of French). Choice 4 is incorrect because the eighteenth century French Orientalist attitude was earlier thought to have inspired the story of Aladdin, but this opinion was revised later. To understand it more clearly refer para 3 - For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the story was invented in that 18th century period as a byproduct of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was prevalent then. The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script.

Question 14: Which of the following, if true, would invalidate the inversion that the phrase “flips the script” refers to?

  1. The French fairy tales of the eighteenth century did not have rags-to-riches plot lines like that of the tale of Aladdin
  2. Diyab’s travelogue described the affluence of the French city of Bordeaux, instead of Versailles.
  3. The description of opulence in Hanna Diyab’s and Antoine Galland’s narratives bore no resemblance to each other
  4. Galland acknowledged in the published translations of Arabian Nights that he heard the story of Aladdin from Diyab.

Please note that the question is asking about the choice that would INVALIDATE THE INVERSION that the phrase “flips the script” refers to. Para 3 talks about the earlier beliefs regarding the origins of the story of Aladdin - For 300 years, scholars thought that the rags-to-riches story of Aladdin might have been inspired by the plots of French fairy tales that came out around the same time, or that the story was invented in that 18th century period as a by-product of French Orientalism, a fascination with stereotypical exotic Middle Eastern luxuries that was prevalent then. The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script. “Flips the script” refers to the assertion made by modern day scholars that the story of Aladdin was that of Diyab himself. Refer paragraph 2 -  ‘The descriptions he (Diyab) uses were very similar to the descriptions of the lavish palace that ended up in Galland’s version of the Aladdin story. Therefore, author Paulo Lemos Horta believes that “Aladdin might be the young Arab Maronite from Aleppo, marveling at the jewels and riches of Versailles.” This extract combined with the following extract from para 4, “The idea that Diyab might have based it on his own life — the experiences of a Middle Eastern man encountering the French, not vice-versa — flips the script” that it was not the French encountering the orientals – rather it was the other way around. Had the two stories of Galland and Diyab borne no resemblance to each other scholars would not have guessed that the story of Aladdin was the story of Diyab himself. We have to choose that choice that validates this conclusion and only choice 3 does it correctly.

Choice 1 cannot be justified from the passage. Choice 2 is incorrect because Diyab did describe the opulence of Versailles but it does not answer the question. Choice 4 has nothing to do with “flipping the script.” It is also not true. Galland acknowledged that he heard the story from Diyab only in his diary and not in his published translations. Therefore, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 15: All of the following serve as evidence for the character of Aladdin being based on Hanna Diyab EXCEPT:

  1. Diyab’s humble origins and class struggles, as recounted in his travelogue
  2. Diyab’s description of the wealth of Versailles in his travelogue
  3. Diyab’s cosmopolitanism and cross-cultural experience
  4. Diyab’s narration of the original story to Galland.

For validating choice 1 refer para 2 - Diyab wrote something of his own: a travelogue penned in the mid-18th century. In it, he recalls telling Galland the story of Aladdin and describes his own HARD-KNOCKS UPBRINGING and the way he marveled at the extravagance of Versailles. For validating choice 2 again refer para 2 - Diyab wrote something of his own: a travelogue penned in the mid-18th century. In it, he recalls telling Galland the story of Aladdin and describes his own hard-knocks upbringing and the way HE MARVELED AT THE EXTRAVAGANCE OF VERSAILLES. For validating choice 3 refer para 3 - According to Horta, “Diyab was ideally placed to embody the overlapping world of East and West, BLENDING THE STORYTELLING TRADITIONS OF HIS HOMELAND WITH HIS YOUTHFUL OBSERVATIONS OF THE WONDER OF 18TH-CENTURY FRANCE.” Choice 4 does not serve as any sort of evidence at all.The fact that Diyab narrated the story of Aladdin to Galland does not serve as evidence that the character of Aladdin was based on Diyab himself. Hence, the correct answer is choice 4.

Directions for questions 16 to 20: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE-4
“Free of the taint of manufacture” – that phrase, in particular, is heavily loaded with the ideology of what the Victorian socialist William Morris called the “anti-scrape”, or an anti-capitalist conservationism (not conservatism) that solaced itself with the vision of a preindustrial golden age. In Britain, folk may often appear a cosy, fossilised form, but when you look more closely, the idea of folk – who has the right to sing it, dance it, invoke it, collect it, belong to it or appropriate it for political or cultural ends – has always been contested territory.
In our own time, though, the word “folk” has achieved the rare distinction of occupying fashionable and unfashionable status simultaneously. Just as the effusive floral prints of the radical William Morris now cover genteel sofas, so the revolutionary intentions of many folk historians and revivalists have led to music that is commonly regarded as parochial and conservative. And yet – as newspaper columns periodically rejoice – folk is hip again, influencing artists, clothing and furniture designers, celebrated at music festivals, awards ceremonies and on TV, reissued on countless record labels. Folk is a sonic “shabby chic”, containing elements of the uncanny and eerie, as well as an antique veneer, a whiff of Britain’s heathen dark ages. The very obscurity and anonymity of folk music’s origins open up space for rampant imaginative fancies.
Cecil Sharp, who wrote about this subject, believed that folk songs existed in constant transformation, a living example of an art form in a perpetual state of renewal. “One man sings a song, and then others sing it after him, changing what they do not like” is the most concise summary of his conclusions on its origins. He compared each rendition of a ballad to an acorn falling from an oak tree; every subsequent iteration sows the song anew. But there is tension in newness. In the late 1960s, purists were suspicious of folk songs recast in rock idioms. Electrification, however, comes in many forms. For the early-20th-century composers such as Vaughan Williams and Holst, there were thunderbolts of inspiration from oriental mysticism, angular modernism and the body blow of the first world war, as well as input from the rediscovered folk tradition itself.
For the second wave of folk revivalists, such as Ewan MacColl and AL Lloyd, starting in the 40s, the vital spark was communism’s dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem. For their younger successors in the 60s, who thronged the folk clubs set up by the old guard, the lyrical freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions for folk-rock’s own golden age, a brief Indian summer that lasted from about 1969 to 1971. Four decades on, even that progressive period has become just one more era ripe for fashionable emulation and pastiche. The idea of a folk tradition being exclusively confined to oral transmission has become a much looser, less severely guarded concept. Recorded music and television, for today’s metropolitan generation, are where the equivalent of folk memories are seeded.
Question 16: At a conference on folk forms, the author of the passage is least likely to agree with which one of the following views ?
  1. Folk forms, in their ability to constantly adapt to the changing world, exhibit an unusual poise and homogeneity with each change.
  2. Folk forms, despite their archaic origins, remain intellectually relevant in contemporary times
  3. The plurality and democratising impulse of folk forms emanate from the improvisation that its practitioners bring to it.
  4. The power of folk resides in its contradictory ability to influence and be influenced by the present while remaining rooted in the past.

Please note that the question is asking for the choice that the author of the passage is LEAST LIKELY to agree with. Now refer to para 3 – “BUT THERE IS TENSION IN NEWNESS. IN THE LATE 1960S, PURISTS WERE SUSPICIOUS OF FOLK SONGS RECAST IN ROCK IDIOMS. Electrification, however, comes in many forms. For the early-20th-century composers such as Vaughan Williams and Holst, there were thunderbolts of inspiration from oriental mysticism, angular modernism and the body blow of the first world war, as well as input from the rediscovered folk tradition itself”. The above lines easily demolish the assertion made in choice 1 i.e., constant adaptation, poise and homogeneity of folk songs.

For Choice 2 refer to paragraph 2. It is true and is something that the author would agree with.

For Choice 3 refer to the following extract in paragraph 3, “”One man sings a song, and then others sing it after him, changing what they do not like”. It is true and is something that the author would agree with. 

For Choice 4 Refer to paragraph 2, “In our own time, though, the word “folk” has achieved the rare distinction of occupying fashionable and unfashionable status simultaneously. Just as the effusive floral prints of the radical William Morris now cover genteel sofas, so the revolutionary intentions of many folk historians and revivalists have led to music that is commonly regarded as parochial and conservative.” It is also true and is something that the author would agree with.

Hence, the correct answer is choice 1.

Question 17: The primary purpose of the reference to William Morris and his floral prints is to show:

  1. the pervasive influence of folk on contemporary art, culture, and fashion.
  2. that what is once regarded as radical in folk, can later be seen as conformist.
  3. that despite its archaic origins, folk continues to remain a popular tradition.
  4. that what was once derided as genteel is now considered revolutionary

Choice 2 is the correct answer. Please note that the question is asking for the PRIMARY PURPOSE of the reference to William Morris and his floral prints. Now refer to the following extract from paragraph 2, “Just as the effusive floral prints of the RADICAL William Morris now cover genteel sofas, so the revolutionary intentions of many folk historians and revivalists have led to music that is commonly regarded as parochial and conservative” points to the fact that what was once radical in folk music is now seen as conformist. Thus, choice 2 is the correct answer.

As per choice 1 - the pervasive influence of folk on contemporary art, culture, and fashion – is not mentioned in the above extract. Hence it is wrong.

Choice 3 has nothing to do with the metaphor of William Morris and his floral prints with folk music. Hence it is wrong.

Choice 4 is actually contradicting the sentiment expressed in the above extract. Hence it is wrong.

Question 18: Which of the following statements about folk revivalism of the 1940s and 1960s cannot be inferred from the passage?

  1. It reinforced Cecil Sharp’s observation about folk’s constant transformation
  2. Freedom and rebellion were popular themes during the second wave of folk revivalism
  3. Electrification of music would not have happened without the influence of rock music.
  4. Even though it led to folk-rock’s golden age, it wasn’t entirely free from critique.

Choice 3 is the correct answer.  First of all, please note that the question is asking for statements about folk revivalism of the 1940s and 1960s which CANNOT BE INFERRED from the passage. Now refer to para 3 – “In the late 1960s, purists were suspicious of folk songs recast in rock idioms. Electrification, however, comes in many forms. For the early-20th-century composers such as Vaughan Williams and Holst, there were thunderbolts of inspiration from oriental mysticism, angular modernism and the body blow of the first world war, as well as input from the rediscovered folk tradition itself”. We can infer that purists were against the electrification of folk music but the passage is silent on the origins of the electrification of music. Therefore, rock music is not necessarily the originator of electrification in music. Thus choice 3 cannot be inferred from the passage. Hence, choice 3 is the correct answer.

Choice 1 can be inferred from the passage. In the 1940s folk music “the vital spark was communism’s dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem. For their younger successors in the 60s, who thronged the folk clubs set up by the old guard, the lyrical freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions for folk rock’s own golden age, a brief Indian summer that lasted from about 1969 to 1971. This extract reinforces Cecil Sharp’s observation about folk’s constant transformation. Hence choice 1 can be eliminated.

Choice 2 can be inferred from para 4 - “For the second wave of folk revivalists, such as Ewan MacColl and AL Lloyd, starting in the 40s, the vital spark was communism’s dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem”. Thus, choice 2 can be eliminated.

Choice 4 can also be inferred from para 4 - “For their younger successors in the 60s, who thronged the folk clubs set up by the old guard, the lyrical freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions for folk rock’s own golden age, a brief Indian summer that lasted from about 1969 to 1971. Four decades on, even that progressive period has become just one more era ripe for fashionable emulation and pastiche.” Pastiche means to imitate or copy and the author is critical about this phenomenon. Thus, choice 4 can be eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 19: The author says that folk “may often appear a cosy, fossilised form” because:

  1. the notion of folk has led to several debates and disagreements.
  2. it has been arrogated for various political and cultural purposes
  3. of its nostalgic association with a pre-industrial past.
  4. folk is a sonic “shabby chic” with an antique veneer.

Please note that the question is asking for the REASON WHY THE AUTHOR SAYS that folk “may often appear a cosy, fossilised form”. For the answer please refer to para 1 - “Free of the taint of manufacture” – that phrase, in particular, is heavily loaded with the ideology of what the Victorian socialist William Morris called the “anti-scrape”, or an anti-capitalist conservationism (not conservatism) that solaced itself with the vision of a preindustrial golden age. In Britain, folk may often appear a cosy, fossilised form, but when you look more closely, the idea of folk – who has the right to sing it, dance it, invoke it, collect it, belong to it or appropriate it for political or cultural ends – has always been contested territory. - This extract clearly gives the link between folk music appearing as a cosy, fossilized form because of its association with a pre-industrial past. Thus, choice 3 is the correct answer.

Choices 1 and 2 may be true but are not connected with folk being referred to as a cosy, fossilized form. “Shabby chic” in choice 4 refers to modern folk music that is now hip and fashionable.

Hence, choice 3 is the correct answer.

Question 20: All of the following are causes for plurality and diversity within the British folk tradition EXCEPT:

  1. the fluidity of folk forms owing to their history of oral mode of transmission.
  2. that British folk continues to have traces of pagan influence from the dark ages
  3. that British folk forms can be traced to the remote past of the country.
  4. paradoxically, folk forms are both popular and unpopular.

Please note that the question is asking for the choice that CANNOT BE THE CAUSE for plurality and diversity within the British folk tradition. For the right answer please refer to para 4 - For the second wave of folk revivalists, such as Ewan MacColl and AL Lloyd, starting in the 40s, the vital spark was communism’s dream of a post-revolutionary New Jerusalem. For their younger successors in the 60s, who thronged the folk clubs set up by the old guard, the lyrical freedom of Dylan and the unchained melodies of psychedelia created the conditions for folk-rock’s own golden age, a brief Indian summer that lasted from about 1969 to 1971. Four decades on, even that progressive period has become just one more era ripe for fashionable emulation and pastiche. THE IDEA OF A FOLK TRADITION BEING EXCLUSIVELY CONFINED TO ORAL TRANSMISSION HAS BECOME A MUCH LOOSER, LESS SEVERELY GUARDED CONCEPT. Recorded music and television, for today’s metropolitan generation, are where the equivalent of folk memories are seeded.

Choice 1 can be derived from paragraph 4 - THE IDEA OF A FOLK TRADITION BEING EXCLUSIVELY CONFINED TO ORAL TRANSMISSION. Therefore, choice 1 is not the answer.

Choice 2 can be derived from paragraph 2 - Folk is a sonic “shabby chic”, containing elements of the uncanny and eerie, as well as an antique veneer, a whiff of BRITAIN’S HEATHEN DARK AGES. The very obscurity and anonymity of folk music’s origins open up space for rampant imaginative fancies. Thus, choice 2 is also not the answer.

Choice 3 can also be asserted from paragraph 2 – “a whiff of Britain’s heathen dark ages” with regard to folk music. Thus, choice 3 is also eliminated.

Choice 4 may be true according to the passage but it does not answer the question asked and therefore CANNOT BE THE CAUSE for plurality and diversity within the British folk tradition. The popularity or unpopularity of folk music has nothing to do with the plurality and diversity of folk music in Britain. 

Thus, choice 4 is the correct answer.

Directions for questions 21 to 24: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
PASSAGE-5
Scientists recently discovered that Emperor Penguins—one of Antarctica’s most celebrated species—employ a particularly unusual technique for surviving the daily chill. As detailed in an article published today in the journal Biology Letters, the birds minimize heat loss by keeping the outer surface of their plumage below the temperature of the surrounding air. At the same time, the penguins’ thick plumage insulates their body and keeps it toasty.
The researchers analyzed thermographic images taken over roughly a month during June 2008. During that period, the average air temperature was 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit. At the same time, the majority of the plumage covering the penguins’ bodies was even colder: the surface of their warmest body part, their feet, was an average 1.76 degrees Fahrenheit, but the plumage on their heads, chests and backs were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively. Overall, nearly the entire outer surface of the penguins’ bodies was below freezing at all times, except for their eyes and beaks. The scientists also used a computer simulation to determine how much heat was lost or gained from each part of the body—and discovered that by keeping their outer surface below air temperature, the birds might paradoxically be able to draw very slight amounts of heat from the air around them. The key to their trick is the difference between two different types of heat transfer: radiation and convection.
The penguins do lose internal body heat to the surrounding air through thermal radiation, just as our bodies do on a cold day. Because their bodies (but not surface plumage) are warmer than the surrounding air, heat gradually radiates outward over time, moving from a warmer material to a colder one. To maintain body temperature while losing heat, penguins, like all warm-blooded animals, rely on the metabolism of food. The penguins, though, have an additional strategy. Since their outer plumage is even colder than the air, the simulation showed that they might gain back a little of this heat through thermal convection—the transfer of heat via the movement of a fluid (in this case, the air). As the cold Antarctic air cycles around their bodies, slightly warmer air comes into contact with the plumage and donates minute amounts of heat back to the penguins, then cycles away at a slightly colder temperature.
Most of this heat, the researchers note, probably doesn’t make it all the way through the plumage and back to the penguins’ bodies, but it could make a slight difference. At the very least, the method by which a penguin’s plumage wicks heat from the bitterly cold air that surrounds it helps to cancel out some of the heat that’s radiating from its interior. And given the Emperors’ unusually demanding breeding cycle, every bit of warmth counts. Since penguins trek as far as 75 miles to the coast to breed and male penguins don’t eat anything during the incubation period of 64 days, conserving calories by giving up as little heat as possible is absolutely crucial.

Question 21: Which of the following best explains the purpose of the word “paradoxically” as used by the author?

  1. Keeping their body colder helps penguins keep their plumage warmer.
  2. Heat loss through radiation happens despite the heat gain through convection.
  3. Keeping a part of their body colder helps penguins keep their bodies warmer.
  4. Heat gain through radiation happens despite the heat loss through convection

A paradox is a logically self-contradictory statement or a statement that runs contrary to one's expectation. Now refer to para 2 - The researchers analyzed thermographic images taken over roughly a month during June 2008. During that period, the average air temperature was 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit. At the same time, the majority of the plumage covering the penguins’ bodies was even colder: the surface of their warmest body part, their feet, was an average 1.76 degrees Fahrenheit, but the plumage on their heads, chests and backs were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively. Overall, nearly the entire outer surface of the penguins’ bodies was below freezing at all times, except for their eyes and beaks. The scientists also used a computer simulation to determine how much heat was lost or gained from each part of the body—and discovered that by keeping their outer surface below air temperature, the birds might PARADOXICALLY be able to draw very slight amounts of heat from the air around them. The key to their trick is the difference between two different types of heat transfer: radiation and convection.

So what is the PARADOX here? The average outer air temperature was 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit. However the surface of their warmest body part, their feet, was an average 1.76 degrees Fahrenheit, but the plumage on their heads, chests and backs were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively. Now by keeping their outer surface below air temperature, the birds might PARADOXICALLY be able to draw very slight amounts of heat from the air around them. The key to their trick is the difference between two different types of heat transfer: radiation and convection.

Choice 1 is not true according to the passage. Penguins keep their bodies warmer and their plumage colder.

Choice 2 is not a paradoxical statement at all. Although it is true it is not contradictory in scope.

Choice 3 is the correct answer. Refer para 3 - Emperor penguins keep their outer plumage colder than the surrounding air in order to keep their bodies warmer. The heat that they lose through thermal radiation is more than made up slightly through convection.

Choice 4 is incorrect. Penguins lose heat through radiation and gain it through convection. Thus, choice 4 is also eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 22: Which of the following can be responsible for Emperor Penguins losing body heat?

  1. Thermal convection.
  2. Plumage.
  3. Reproduction process
  4. Food metabolism.

Refer para 4 - And given the Emperors’ UNUSUALLY DEMANDING BREEDING CYCLE, every bit of warmth counts. Since penguins trek as far as 75 miles to the coast to breed and male penguins don’t eat anything during the INCUBATION PERIOD OF 64 DAYS, conserving calories by giving up as little heat as possible is absolutely crucial. This makes it very clear that Emperor Penguins lose body heat during their REPRODUCTION PROCESS. Hence the correct answer is choice 3.

Now refer para 3 - The penguins do lose internal body heat to the surrounding air through thermal radiation, just as our bodies do on a cold day. Because their bodies (but not surface plumage) are warmer than the surrounding air, heat gradually radiates outward over time, moving from a warmer material to a colder one. TO MAINTAIN BODY TEMPERATURE WHILE LOSING HEAT, PENGUINS, LIKE ALL WARM-BLOODED ANIMALS, RELY ON THE METABOLISM OF FOOD. This shows that METABOLISM OF FOOD helps to TO MAINTAIN BODY TEMPERATURE. Hence eliminate choice 4.

Again refer para 3 - The penguins, though, have an additional strategy. SINCE THEIR OUTER PLUMAGE IS EVEN COLDER THAN THE AIR, THE SIMULATION SHOWED THAT THEY MIGHT GAIN BACK A LITTLE OF THIS HEAT THROUGH THERMAL CONVECTION—the transfer of heat via the movement of a fluid (in this case, the air). As the cold Antarctic air cycles around their bodies, slightly warmer air comes into contact with the PLUMAGE and donates minute amounts of heat back to the penguins, then cycles away at a slightly colder temperature. This shows that both PLUMAGE and THERMAL CONVECTION help to gain body heat and not lose it. Thus, choice 1 and 2 are also eliminated.

Hence, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 23: In the last sentence of paragraph 3, “slightly warmer air” and “at a slightly colder temperature” refer to  ______ AND  ______  respectively:

  1. the cold Antarctic air which becomes warmer because of the heat radiated out from penguins’ bodies AND the fall in temperature of the surrounding air after thermal convection
  2. the cold Antarctic air whose temperature is higher than that of the plumage AND the fall in temperature of the Antarctic air after it has transmitted some heat to the plumage.
  3. the air trapped in the plumage which is warmer than the Antarctic air AND the fall in temperature of the trapped plumage air after it radiates out some heat.
  4. the air inside penguins’ bodies kept warm because of metabolism of food AND the fall in temperature of the body air after it transfers some heat to the plumage.

Refer para 3 - “Since their outer plumage is even colder than the air, the simulation showed that they might gain back a little of this heat through thermal convection—the transfer of heat via the movement of a fluid (in this case, the air). As the cold Antarctic air cycles around their bodies, slightly warmer air comes into contact with the plumage and donates minute amounts of heat back to the penguins, then cycles away at a slightly colder temperature.” A careful reading will lead us to the fact that the “slightly warmer air” refers to the cold Antarctic air whose temperature is higher than that of the plumage and “at a slightly colder temperature” refers to the fall in temperature of the Antarctic air after it has transferred some heat to the plumage of the emperor penguins. Thus, choice 2 is the correct answer. 

Choice 1 is incorrect as it says the opposite of what is stated in para – 3.

Choice 3 is incorrect as nothing has been mentioned about air being trapped in the plumage of the emperor penguins.

Choice 4 is incorrect because food metabolism is not related to the question. Moreover, heat is not transferred to the plumage but to the surrounding air by the process of thermal radiation. 

Hence, the correct answer is choice 2.

Question 24: All of the following, if true, would negate the findings of the study reported in the passage EXCEPT:

  1. the penguins’ plumage were made of a material that did not allow any heat transfer through convection or radiation.
  2. the temperature of the plumage on the penguins’ heads, chests and backs were found to be 1.84, 7.24 and 9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively
  3. the average temperature of the feet of penguins in the month of June 2008 were found to be 1.76 degrees Fahrenheit.
  4. the average air temperature recorded during the month of June 2008 in the area of study were –10 degrees Fahrenheit.

The question actually asks us to choose the choice that supports the findings of the study reported in the passage. Refer para2 - The researchers analyzed thermographic images taken over roughly a month during June 2008. During that period, the average air temperature was 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit. At the same time, the majority of the plumage covering the penguins’ bodies was even colder: the surface of their warmest body part, their feet, WAS AN AVERAGE 1.76 DEGREES FAHRENHEIT, but the plumage on their heads, chests and backs were -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively. Choice 3 is correct as this can be verified from the data given in para 2.

Choice 1 is not true according to the passage. The material of the penguins’ plumage has not been discussed in the passage. In choice 2, the temperatures of the plumage on the penguins’ heads, chests and backs should have read -1.84, -7.24 and -9.76 degrees Fahrenheit respectively. Thus, choice 2 is also untrue and can be eliminated.

Choice 4 is not true. The data given above gives the average air temperature recorded during the month of June 2008 in the area of study to be 0.32 degrees Fahrenheit.

Thus, the correct answer is choice 3.

Question 25: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the choice that best captures the essence of the passage.

Vance Packard’s The Hidden Persuaders alerted the public to the psychoanalytical techniques used by the advertising industry. Its premise was that advertising agencies were using depth interviews to identify hidden consumer motivations, which were then used to entice consumers to buy goods. Critics and reporters often wrongly assumed that Packard was writing mainly about subliminal advertising. Packard never mentioned the word subliminal, however, and devoted very little space to discussions of “sub-threshold” effects. Instead, his views largely aligned with the notion that individuals do not always have access to their conscious thoughts and can be persuaded by supraliminal messages without their knowledge.
  1. Packard held that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ builds on peoples’ conscious thoughts and awareness, by understanding the hidden motivations of consumers and works at the subliminal level.
  2. Packard argued that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ works at the supraliminal level, wherein the people targeted are aware of being persuaded, after understanding the hidden motivations of consumers and works.
  3. Packard argued that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ understands the hidden motivations of consumers and works at the subliminal level, on the subconscious level of the awareness of the people targeted.
  4. Packard held that advertising as a ‘hidden persuasion’ understands the hidden motivations of consumers and works at the supraliminal level, though the people targeted have no awareness of being persuaded.

Choice 1 and 3 can be eliminated as they state that advertising works at subliminal level while the passage states that advertising works at supraliminal level. Choice 2 can be eliminated as it states that people targeted are aware of being persuaded, while the passage states that people targeted are NOT aware of being persuaded (hidden consumer motivations; individuals do not always have access to their conscious thoughts). Choice 4 summarises the passage correctly by stating the moot point of the passage. Advertising understands the hidden motivations of consumers and works at the supraliminal level in which the consumers have no idea that they are being persuaded. Hence, the correct answer is choice 4.

Question 26: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the choice that best captures the essence of the passage.

Physics is a pure science that seeks to understand the behavior of matter without regard to whether it will afford any practical benefit. Engineering is the correlative applied science in which physical theories are put to some specific use, such as building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. Engineers obviously rely heavily on the discoveries of physicists, but an engineer’s knowledge of the world is not the same as the physicist’s knowledge. In fact, an engineer’s know-how will often depend on physical theories that, from the point of view of pure physics, are false. There are some reasons for this. First, theories that are false in the purest and strictest sense are still sometimes very good approximations to the true ones, and often have the added virtue of being much easier to work with. Second, sometimes the true theories apply only under highly idealized conditions which can only be created under controlled experimental situations. The engineer finds that in the real world, theories rejected by physicists yield more accurate predictions than the ones that they accept.
  1. The relationship between pure and applied science is strictly linear, with the pure science directing applied science, and never the other way round.
  2. Though engineering draws heavily from pure science, it contributes to knowledge, by incorporating the constraints and conditions in the real world.
  3. The unique task of the engineer is to identify, understand, and interpret the design constraints to produce a successful result.
  4. Engineering and physics fundamentally differ on matters like building a bridge or a nuclear reactor

Choice 1 can be eliminated as it talks about relationship between pure and applied science, with the pure science directing applied science, and NEVER THE OTHER WAY ROUND. The passage does not say so.

Choice 3 can be eliminated as it talks about DESIGN CONSTRAINTS. The passage does not say so.

Choice 4 can be eliminated as it says that Engineering and physics FUNDAMENTALLY DIFFER on matters like building a bridge or a nuclear reactor. The passage does not say so.

Choice 2 summarizes the paragraph succinctly. It restates the main point of the passage. Though engineering uses a lot of theories of physics it also ACCEPTS A LOT OF THEORIES REJECTED BY PHYSICISTS that have been created in controlled experimental situations because they happen to WORK IN REAL WORLD SITUATIONS. Hence, the correct answer is choice 2.

Question 27: The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

  1. People with dyslexia have difficulty with print-reading, and people with autism spectrum disorder have difficulty with mind-reading.
  2. An example of a lost cognitive instinct is mind-reading: our capacity to think of ourselves and others as having beliefs, desires, thoughts and feelings.
  3. Mind-reading looks increasingly like literacy, a skill we know for sure is not in our genes, since scripts have been around for only 5,000-6,000 years
  4. Print-reading, like mind-reading varies across cultures, depends heavily on certain parts of the brain, and is subject to developmental disorders.

Once you read the four sentences it becomes clear that the passage is about mind reading. Sentence 2 appears to be fit for opening sentence. It defines and gives the meaning of mind reading. Sentence 3 extends the description of mind reading by comparing it with ‘literacy’ and also mentions that ‘scripts’ have been around for 5000 years. This thought of ‘literacy’ and ‘scripts’ is further extended in sentence 4 which talks about ‘print reading’. Sentence 4 also talks about developmental disorders. This issue of developmental disorders is further extended in sentence 1 which discusses dyslexia and autism which are examples of developmental disorders. Hence the correct order is 2341.

Question 28: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

  1. His idea to use sign language was not a completely new idea as Native Americans used hand gestures to communicate with other tribes.
  2. Ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle, for example, observed that men who are deaf are incapable of speech.
  3. People who were born deaf were denied the right to sign a will as they were “presumed to understand nothing; because it is not possible that they have been able to learn to read or write.”
  4. Pushback against this prejudice began in the 16th century when Pedro Ponce de León created a formal sign language for the hearing impaired.
  5. For millennia, people with hearing impairments encountered marginalization because it was believed that language could only be learned by hearing the spoken word.

Reading the five sentences makes it clear that this paragraph is about people with hearing impairments and their marginalization in the society. Sentence 5 is fit for introductory sentence as it mentions the marginalisation that the hearing impaired encountered. It can be followed by sentence 3 which describes and gives an example of the prejudice that hearing impaired people encountered when they were denied the right to sign a will. Sentence 3 can be followed by sentence 4 which talks about the push back against ‘this prejudice’. It also mentions that Pedro created a formal sign language for the hearing impaired. Sentence 4 can be followed by a sentence 1 which continues this thought by saying that his idea use sign language was not a completely new idea. Choice 2 is the odd sentence here as it does not appear to fit anywhere in the story given in the paragraph as it talks about the ancient Greek philosopher Aristotle who observed that deaf people were in capable of speech. This is irrelevant. Hence, the correct answer is choice 2.

Question 29: Five sentences related to a topic are given below in a jumbled order. Four of them form a coherent and unified paragraph. Identify the odd sentence that does not go with the four. Key in the number of the choice that you choose.

  1. 'Stat’ signaled something measurable, while ‘matic’ advertised free labour; but ‘tron’, above all, indicated control.
  2. It was a totem of high modernism, the intellectual and cultural mode that decreed no process or phenomenon was too complex to be grasped, managed and optimized.
  3. Like the heraldic shields of ancient knights, these morphemes were painted onto the names of scientific technologies to proclaim one’s history and achievements to friends and enemies alike.
  4. The historian Robert Proctor at Stanford University calls the suffix ‘-tron’, along with ‘-matic’ and ‘-stat’, embodied symbols.
  5. To gain the suffix was to acquire a proud and optimistic emblem of the electronic and atomic age.

Reading the five sentences makes it clear that the passage is about the three morphemes stat, matic, and Tron. Sentence 4 is fit for the introductory sentence as it introduces the three suffixes - stat, matic, and Tron. It can then be followed by sentence 3 which states that these morphemes have been linked to scientific Technologies to proclaim one's history and achievements. Sentence 5 extends this thought further by saying that to gain the suffixes was a mark of prestige in the modern era. Sentence 2 is the odd sentence as we are not sure as to what the pronoun it refers to. Hence the correct answer is choice 2.

Question 30: The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

  1. We’ll all live under mob rule until then, which doesn’t help anyone.
  2. Perhaps we need to learn to condense the feedback we receive online so that 100 replies carry the same weight as just one.
  3. As we grow more comfortable with social media conversations being part of the way we interact every day, we are going to have to learn how to deal with legitimate criticism.
  4. A new norm will arise where it is considered unacceptable to reply with the same point that dozens of others have already.

A quick reading of the sentences will make it clear that the paragraph is about social media conversations. Sentence 1 talks about ‘until then,’ so it cannot be the introductory sentence. Sentence 2 starts with ‘perhaps’, therefore it also cannot be the introductory sentence. Sentence 3 is very broad and general and introduces the idea of social media conversations therefore it can be the opening sentence. It can be followed by sentence 2 and 4 as both of them talk about condensing the feedback and repetition of replies. Sentence 1 can conclude the paragraph as it says that until this condensation of feedback or replies is undertaken we will all live under mob rule in the social media. Hence the correct sequence is 3241.

Question 31: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.

  1. One argument is that actors that do not fit within a single, well-defined category may suffer an “illegitimacy discount”.
  2. Others believe that complex identities confuse audiences about an organization’s role or purpose.
  3. Some organizations have complex and multidimensional identities that span or combine categories, while other organizations possess narrow identities.
  4. Identity is one of the most important features of organizations, but there exist opposing views among sociologists about how identity affects organizational performance.
  5. Those who think that complex identities are beneficial point to the strategic advantages of ambiguity, and organizations’ potential to differentiate themselves from competitors.

After reading the five sentences it becomes clear that the paragraph is about “identity” or the identities of organisations. Sentence 4 is fit for the introductory sentence as it introduces the theme of Identity and the existence of opposing views among sociologists about the effect of Identity on organisational performance. Sentence 4 can be followed by sentence 3 which describes the types of identities namely “complex” and ‘narrow’. Sentence 3 can be followed by sentence 5 which describes about those who think that Complex identities are beneficial. It can be followed by sentence2 which talks about ‘others’ feel the opposite i.e. complex identities confuse audiences about an organisation's role or purpose. Sentence 1 does not fit in the story as it talks about actors and not about identities at all. Hence the correct answer is choice 1.

Question 32: The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

  1. Metaphors may map to similar meanings across languages, but their subtle differences can have a profound effect on our understanding of the world.
  2. Latin scholars point out carpe diem is a horticultural metaphor that, particularly seen in the context of its source, is more accurately translated as “plucking the day,” evoking the plucking and gathering of ripening fruits or flowers, enjoying a moment that is rooted in the sensory experience of nature, unrelated to the force implied in seizing.
  3. The phrase carpe diem, which is often translated as “seize the day” and its accompanying philosophy, has gone on to inspire countless people in how they live their lives and motivates us to see the world a little differently from the norm.
  4. It’s an example of one of the more telling ways that we mistranslate metaphors from one language to another, revealing in the process our hidden assumptions about what we really value.

This passage is about the phrase Carpe diem. Sentence 3 e is fit for becoming the introductory sentence as it introduces the phrase Carpe diem and gives its meaning. Sentence 2 and 4 are linked together as a pair as both of them talk about metaforce. Sentence to is linked to sentence 3 e because sentence to gives a different meaning of the phrase Carpe diem that is plucking the day. This difference is highlighted in sentence 4 which points out the miss translation of metaphors from one language to another. Sentence 1 can be used as a concluding sentence as it talks about the differences 10 the translation of metaphor. Hence the correct order is 3241.

Question 33: The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given below, when properly sequenced would yield a coherent paragraph. Decide on the proper sequence of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence of the four numbers as your answer.

  1. If you’ve seen a little line of text on websites that says something like “customers who bought this also enjoyed that” you have experienced this collaborative filtering firsthand.
  2. The problem with these algorithms is that they don’t take into account a host of nuances and circumstances that might interfere with their accuracy
  3. If you just bought a gardening book for your cousin, you might get a flurry of links to books about gardening, recommended just for you! – the algorithm has no way of knowing you hate gardening and only bought the book as a gift.
  4. Collaborative filtering is a mathematical algorithm by which correlations and cooccurrences of behaviors are tracked and then used to make recommendations.

A quick reading of the sentences will make it clear that the paragraph is about collaborative filtering. Sentence 4 is fit for introductory sentence as it defines and describes collaborative filtering. Sentence 4 can be followed by sentence 1 as it gives an example of collaborative filtering. Sentence 1 can be followed by sentence 2 as it discusses about the problem with collaborative filtering by saying that these algorithms don't take into account a host of nuances and circumstances that might interfere with their accuracy. Sentence 2 can be followed by sentence 3 as it gives an example of the problem with these algorithms. Hence the correct sequence will be 4123.

Question 34: The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the choice that best captures the essence of the passage.

A distinguishing feature of language is our ability to refer to absent things, known as displaced reference. A speaker can bring distant referents to mind in the absence of any obvious stimuli. Thoughts, not limited to the here and now, can pop into our heads for unfathomable reasons. This ability to think about distant things necessarily precedes the ability to talk about them. Thought precedes meaningful referential communication. A prerequisite for the emergence of human-like meaningful symbols is that the mental categories they relate to can be invoked even in the absence of immediate stimuli.
  1. Thoughts precede all speech acts and these thoughts pop up in our heads even in the absence of any stimulus.
  2. Displaced reference is particular to humans and thoughts pop into our heads for no real reason.
  3. Thoughts are essential to communication and only humans have the ability to think about objects not present in their surroundings.
  4. The ability to think about objects not present in our environment precedes the development of human communication

Choice 1 is wrong because it says that thoughts precede all speech apps while the passage says that thought receives meaningful referential communication. Choice 2 is also wrong because it says that displaced reference is unique to humans. The passage does not say so. Choice 3 is also wrong because it says that only humans have the ability to think about objects not present in their surroundings. The passage does not say so. Choice 4 is correct as it summarises the paragraph accurately. Hence the correct answer is choice 4.